There has been a great deal of furore over the Knesset's passing of an anti-Boycot Law.
What most of the posters on here seem not to know is that there is a cause of action in English law know as Tortious Interference, also known as intentional interference with contractual relations, in the common law of tort. This occurs when a person intentionally damages the plaintiff's contractual or other business relationships. Which is similar in effect.
Inducement to breach a contract can be broken down into the following three scenarios:
The defendant boycotter persuades a third party (buyer/seller from/to an Israeli Company) to break a contract with the claimant.
By unlawful means the defendant prevents performance of the contract. A good example of this is where the defendant may have casued damage to the plaintiff's factory thereby rendering him unable to fulfil the contract.
The defendant has induced a fourth party to break his contract with a third party who as a consequence is unable to perform his contract for the claimant. An example of this is where a boycotter may induce employees (the fourth party) of the third party (buyer/seller) not to handle the goods of the claimant (an Israeli Company). The contract is between the third party and the claimant with the fourth party the employees of the third party induced to break their contract of employment.For this third case to occur the defendant must be aware of the contract between the claimant and the third party and endeavour to cause a breach by contacting the fourth party.
Now tell me does this breach the boycotter's right of free expression?
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