By Rich Armbach
September 22, 2011

We are consistently told that The League of Nations “ gave Palestine to the Jews “. It is hard to believe that such nonsense could gain any currency but it seems that it has.

A variant is that it was given to The State of Israel, despite the fact that Israel didn’t exist so could not be given anything or be capable of receiving anything. Then the massive leap to “ Israel therefore was simply recovering what it already owned when it occupied the west bank."

I ran this story past my cat and he thinks I am nuts.

In the closing stages of the war , including the time of the Balfour declaration, the British were all over the near east like a rash. At the end of the war there were 200,000 British troops in Palestine... the fact on the ground ( and I know Israel is very fond of facts on the ground). The British knew at the time of The Balfour Declaration that they would be in charge in Palestine at the end of the war, hence they were able to make declarations such as the one associated with Balfour.

The geography of the Palestine Mandate was agreed between Britain and France and the world was told that was how it was going to be.

The League of Nations duly mandated Palestine to the British.


The Mandate included an acknowledgment that the mandatory power would be responsible for putting into effect the Balfour Declaration.

“ Whereas the Principle Allied Powers have also agreed that the mandatory should be responsible for putting into effect the declaration originally made on November 2nd, 1917, by the government of His Brittanic Majesty, and adopted by the said powers, in favour of the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people”

So the British are in charge. It was their declaration, and are mandated to give effect to it.



Thu, 09/22/2011 - 13:45

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Did you think up this rubbish all by yourself or were you helped?
The League of Nations Mandate was given to the British at the request of the Zionists to implement the Balfour Declaration - i.e. the exercise of a right of self determination by the Jews in their ancient homeland. All that the frankly poppycock you have posted here over three posts of the most outlandish and tortuous arguments which prove nothing is that you do not have a clue.
As per Wikipedia:
A homeland (rel. country of origin and native land) is the concept of the place (cultural geography) to which an ethnic group holds a long history and a deep cultural association with —the country in which a particular national identity began. As a common noun, it simply connotes the country, of one's origin - my emphasis - so please try again or rather on reflection please don't waste everyone's time with your abject nonsense.
The Mandate for Palestine was to set up a country for the Jews - go and read the UN Partition Plan of 1947 which itself was an act of treachery in that again the World reduced the land which the Jews were to have into areas which were almost completely indefensible - as was soon proved. The Jews accepted and the Arabs rejected it. The resolution noted Britain's planned termination of the British Mandate for Palestine and recommended the partition of Palestine (not some Arab State called Palestine) into two states, one Jewish and one Arab. The Arabs apparently now want to go back to 1947 and forget what has happened in the intervening 64 years - some hopes! You on the other hand want to go even further and dismantle the State of Israel altogether because you fallaciously claim there is no legal basis for its creation - nice one.


Thu, 09/22/2011 - 16:42

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So why didn't the Jews of Palestine self determine under the mandate ?


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